Explanation

$\because C = 1/\sqrt{\mu_{0}\varepsilon_{0}} \therefore \mu_{0} = 1/(\varepsilon_{0} \cdot C^{2})$ = $1/[(q^{2}/(F4\pi r^{2})) \cdot C^{2}] = 1/[(q^{2}/(F4\pi r^{2})) \cdot (L/T)^{2}]$